Domhnaillín Breac wrote:
Deghebh wrote:
It could be even more ancient. The tongue position for 'n', 'd', and 'l' are very similar, and the negative imperative particle is 'lá' in both Arabic and Hebrew. That could take the link back to pre 2000 BC.
Or it could not, because whereas Breton and Irish are nigh-universally regarded to be closely-related Indo-European languages, the position that Indo-European is ultimately related to Afro-Asiatic is still very much a minority view.
I am not saying that Celtic has major Afro-Asiatic roots, rather, if you take the OT with more than a pinch of salt, if you analyse the name Abraham, you get possibly ab Brahmin. The son of an Indian religious leader.
Hebrew, and Arabic have also Indo roots.
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On a side note, the Hebrew negative imperative is not lá. In Biblical Hebrew, it was either לֹא (lo) or אַל ('al). In Modern Hebrew, only אַל is used.
However, The Holy Land fell under Egyptian hegemony for many years, so that the Indo roots of Hebrew and Arabic were heavily diluted with north African.
Incidentally, Hebrew, and Arab are the same word.
One is written in hebrew, the other in Arabic, but even the 'alphabets' are very similar, and BOTH 'alphabets' are DEVOID of vowels.
Further, for someone familiar with Irish to differentiate analytically between a long 'a' and a long 'o', is pushing it. These two sounds are nearly identical.
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Deghebh wrote:
Breton and Gaoluinn were intercomprehensible up to 500AD.
"Citation please."
There is a tradition that the Romans reported that their Gaulish interpreters had no difficulty in communicating with the Irish Celts. Neither did they consider them any other than Gaulish.